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8011완벽한공부문제 & 8011시험대비인증공부자료
Fast2test는 유일하게 여러분이 원하는PRMIA인증8011시험관련자료를 해결해드릴 수 잇는 사이트입니다. 여러분이 다른 사이트에서도 관련덤프자료를 보셨을경우 페이지 아래를 보면 자료출처는 당연히 Fast2test 일 것입니다. Fast2test의 자료만의 제일 전면적이고 또 최신 업데이트일 것입니다.
PRMIA 8011 (신용 및 상대방 위험 관리자 (CCRM) 자격증) 인증 시험은 개인의 신용 및 상대방 위험 관리에 대한 지식과 이해력을 시험하는 것을 목적으로합니다. 이 시험은 은행, 보험 회사, 투자 회사 및 규제 기관을 포함한 금융 산업에서 일하는 전문가들에게 특히 관련이 있습니다.
PRMIA 8011 시험은 준비와 공부의 깊은 이해가 필요한 어려운 자격증입니다. 시험에 합격한 후에는 PRMIA CCRM 자격증 인증서를 받게 되며, 이는 경력 향상과 위험관리 보편적인 표준에 대한 약속을 보여줄 수 있는 귀중한 자격증입니다. 전반적으로, PRMIA 8011 시험은 신용과 계약상위험관리에 대한 지식과 전문성을 향상시키기를 원하는 전문가들에게 훌륭한 선택입니다.
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최신버전 8011완벽한 공부문제 완벽한 시험덤프 데모문제 다운
PRMIA인증사에서 주췌하는 8011시험은 IT업계에 종사하는 분이시라면 모두 패스하여 자격증을 취득하고 싶으리라 믿습니다. Fast2test에서는 여러분이 IT인증자격증을 편하게 취득할수 있게 도와드리는 IT자격증시험대비시험자료를 제공해드리는 전문 사이트입니다. Fast2test덤프로 자격증취득의 꿈을 이루세요.
PRMIA 또는 전문 위험 관리자 국제 협회는 교육, 네트워킹 및 옹호를 통해 위험 관리 직업을 발전시키는 데 전념하는 글로벌 조직입니다. PRMIA의 주요 오퍼링 중 하나는 인증 프로그램이며, 여기에는 신용 및 상대방 관리자 (CCRM) 인증서가 포함됩니다. CCRM은 신용 위험 및 상대방 위험 관리에 대한 후보자의 지식을 테스트하는 포괄적 인 시험입니다.
최신 PRMIA Certification 8011 무료샘플문제 (Q118-Q123):
질문 # 118
For a security with a daily standard deviation of 2%, calculate the 10-day VaR at the 95% confidence level.
Assume expected daily returns to be nil.
- A. 0.1471
- B. None of the above.
- C. 0.02
- D. 0.104
정답：D
설명：
If the daily standard deviation is 2%, the 10-day standard deviation will be 2%* #10 = 0.063245. The value of Z at the 95% confidence level is 1.64485. Therefore the VaR value is 1.64485 * 0.063245 = 10.4%. The other choices are incorrect.
질문 # 119
If the default hazard rate for a company is 10%, and the spread on its bonds over the risk free rate is 800 bps, what is the expected recovery rate?
- A. 0.00%
- B. 20.00%
- C. 8.00%
- D. 40.00%
정답：B
설명：
The recovery rate, the default hazard rate (also called the average default intensity) and the spread on debt are linked by the equation Hazard Rate = Spread/(1 - Recovery Rate). Therefore, the recovery rate implicit in the given data is = 1 - 8%/10% = 20%.
질문 # 120
Altman's Z-score does not consider which of the following ratios:
- A. Working capital to total assets
- B. Market capitalization to debt
- C. Sales to total assets
- D. Net income to total assets
정답：D
설명：
A computation of Altman's Z-score considers the following ratios:
- Working capital to total assets
- Retained earnings to total assets
- EBIT to total assets
- Market cap to debt
- Sales to total assets
It does not consider Net Income to total assets, therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer. This makes sense as net income is after interest and taxes, both of which are not relevant for considering the cash flows for debt servicing.
질문 # 121
Which of the following statements is NOT true in relation to the recent financial crisis of 2007-08?
- A. The existence of central counterparties could have limited the damage caused by the financial crisis
- B. Central banks had data on the interconnections between institutions, but poor understanding and analysis meant this data was never analyzed
- C. Counterparty risk was difficult to gauge as it was impossible to know who the counterparty's counterparties were
- D. An intention to diversify from their core activities led all market participants to the same activities, which though appearing diversified at the bank's level, created a concentration risk at the systemic level
정답：B
설명：
Counterparty risk was difficult to gauge as it was impossible to know who the counterparty's counterparties were - this is true as the chain of financial transactions became excessively long with no central transparency of who owed who what. Bank A's credit depended upon the health of its counterparties, whose health in turn depended upon other counterparties. Thus Choice 'd' is a correct statement.
In an attempt to diversify, banks became more like each other - chasing yield, they piled into securitized products, and chasing diversification, they piled into different types of securitized products. The system as a whole became susceptible to small shocks in the assets underlying this vast edifice of structured products.
Therefore Choice 'a' represents a correct statement.
Choice 'c' does not represent a correct statement. Central banks had little data on the interconnections between institutions. They were aware of the large volumes of OTC transactions, but had no data to figure out who was connected to who, and who had what kind of exposures.
Choice 'b' represents a correct statement. Most transactions, other than exchange cleared futures trades (which were a tiny fraction of all trades) were cleared on a bilateral basis. The existence of central counterparties (CCPs) could have limited the impact of the crisis significantly as market participants would not have lost trust in each other, and the 'collateral damage' that was witnessed from a fall in housing prices, and thereby mortgage assets, would have been more contained.
질문 # 122
Which of the following distribution assumptions will produce the lowest probability of exceeding an extreme value, assuming identical means and variances?
- A. a normal distribution
- B. a distribution with kurtosis = 5
- C. a normal mixture distribution
- D. t-distribution
정답：A
설명：
An 'extreme value' will be a value that will lie in the tails. We need to determine the distribution that will have the least weight in the tails so that the probability of exceeding this tail value is minimum across the given choices.
The t-distribution, a distribution with kurtosis > 3 and a normal mixture distribution are all distributions with tails fatter than that for a normal distribution. A normal distribution will have the 'thinnest' tails among the choices and therefore the lowest probability of exceeding a given tail event value.
A note about the t-distribution: Leptokurtic distributions (those that have kurtosis>3, ie kurtosis greater than that for a normal distribution) generally appear to have higher peaks on their PDF graphs. The t-distribution is flatter, and actually appears lower than a normal distribution, which may make one think that it has a lower kurtosis and therefore should have thinner tails than a normal distribution. But that is not so, and the "visual" inspection test fails for inferring the kurtosis from just looking a the shape of the distribution. The kurtosis of a t-distribution is given by the formula {3 + 6/(d - 4)}, where d is the degrees of freedom and d > 4. Therefore the kurtosis of a t-distribution is always greater than 3 as "6/(d-4)" will always be a positive number being added to 3. Therefore there is no conflict between a t-distribution having fatter tails than a normal distribution as it has a higher kurtosis, even though it appears 'lower' on a graph when superimposed with a normal distribution.
질문 # 123
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8011시험대비 인증공부자료: https://kr.fast2test.com/8011-premium-file.html
